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Tags: philosophy, debate, politics, science, culture 

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shall she sail seas
Vice Captain

PostPosted: Sun Dec 07, 2008 12:53 pm


In 'Unto This Last', John Ruskin
It is impossible to conclude, of any given mass of acquired wealth, merely by the fact of its existence, whether it signifies good or evil to the nation in the midst of which it exists. Its real value depends on the moral sign attached to it, just as strictly as that of a mathematical quantity depends on the algebraic sign attached to it. Any given accumulation of commercial wealth may be indicative, on the one hand, of faithful industries, progressive energies, and productive ingenuities: or, on the other, it may be indicative of mortal luxury, merciless tyranny, ruinous chicanery.


But how would one determine whether commercial wealth in a particular situation is serving good or evil intentions? What exactly defines the morality of wealth?

To say "how it's being used" is too simple and vague.
PostPosted: Thu Dec 18, 2008 6:48 pm


I'm not sure if it has a name.. but I think whether someone uses their money for "good" or for "bad" is only pleasing themselves. If the wealth is used for charities it is still really to please the giver, because they've done something good. When it is the other way, it is socially "wrong" but it makes the wealthy person still happy in a way. Different type of happiness but it is only still focused on oneself. This I think will affect what one thinks about commercial wealth and its morality. Although morals can be seen in many varies and specific types of issues and situations, the general rule of it seems to be about preferences and one own's view and upbringings on how morals should be "right" or "wrong."

[.Jewl.]
Vice Captain

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Human Power! For all your needs in sociology, history, culture, psychology, media, etc.

 
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