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Adored Admirer

Any Christian who can prove to me the Deity of Christ, please do so. I do not ask for any Trinitarian thought, because that is not my concern at all. Instead, I am asking that you prove to me that Christ Himself was God Incarnate. Use any Scripture if you want, but prove to me that this is so. I will challenge any attempt, and when I do, I would like to see someone provide to me a rebuttle. If they cannot, then I must ask why they believe that Christ is God Incarnate.

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There are quite a number of people, Christians for the most part, who are saying, "It is not a matter of reason, but of faith," or "Pray to God and ask Him to guide you to the truth." These are nice, but they are not what I am looking for. Do not say to me, "Your bias is in the way," or, "Pray to God so that you may come to the truth." I know that I said a similar quotation previously, but I must make note of this: I am a firm believer in Christianity. I trust in the Lord Jesus Christ, not for anything I have done, but what He has done for me. My question is this: Is Jesus God? Do not come and say, "Yes, He is." Rather, say something such as this: "What of this verse, or even this one? Here is why I believe that these verses support the Deity of Christ," and then provide your reason.

If anyone is great in the Hebrew and Greek and can convince me, even if uttering an argument with a concise sentence, even a sentence, if it's so convincing, will have made my day. I do not deny the Deity of Christ, but I have seen some arguments that do, and they give some good responses to the commonly said answers from Trinitarians. By the way, let no person quote John 10:30, "I and the Father are one." It's a good verse, but I must agree with the real John Calvin that the ancients wrongly used this verse to support the ομοουσια (homoousia; same essence) of the Father and Son. If I am not mistaken, even Arius would be pleased with this verse, and he didn't agree that the Father and Son were of the same substance.

Edited for: responding to repeated words, misconceptions, non-apologetic Christians (oxymoron?), as well as the fact that this has nothing to do with the "Trinity," et cetera. There are other teachings that teach that Jesus is God without being Trinitarian.

Sparkly Explorer

*stares and blinks for awhile*
Okay, first let me get this straight.
You want me to prove to you the Deity of Christ. This I can do, but I need to get the other part of your post straight before I do so.
What is the operating definition for deity?
But you said that you want me to prove that He's God incarnate, and I'm assuming by "God" you mean YHWH. I cannot prove that Jesus is YHWH incarnate because I don't hold to Oneness theology. I can only prove that Jesus is a deity, but not that He's YHWH, since I believe Jesus and YHWH to be separate personas.
So which is it, do you want me to prove Jesus' deity/godhood, or that Jesus is YHWH?

Adored Admirer

SoundDoctrine
*stares and blinks for awhile*
Okay, first let me get this straight.
You want me to prove to you the Deity of Christ. This I can do, but I need to get the other part of your post straight before I do so.
What is the operating definition for deity?
But you said that you want me to prove that He's God incarnate, and I'm assuming by "God" you mean YHWH. I cannot prove that Jesus is YHWH incarnate because I don't hold to Oneness theology. I can only prove that Jesus is a deity, but not that He's YHWH, since I believe Jesus and YHWH to be separate personas.
So which is it, do you want me to prove Jesus' deity/godhood, or that Jesus is YHWH?


I am asking that you prove this to me Scripturally. Now, when I speak of "Deity," I am referring to Yahweh, the godhood that Christ Himself possesses. And, I am not asking anything of Oneness theology, because if that were so, I would not be asking you to prove to me that Christ is God Incarnate, since Oneness theologians agree that Christ is God of the Old Testament. So, can you do this?

Sparkly Explorer

John Calvin
SoundDoctrine
*stares and blinks for awhile*
Okay, first let me get this straight.
You want me to prove to you the Deity of Christ. This I can do, but I need to get the other part of your post straight before I do so.
What is the operating definition for deity?
But you said that you want me to prove that He's God incarnate, and I'm assuming by "God" you mean YHWH. I cannot prove that Jesus is YHWH incarnate because I don't hold to Oneness theology. I can only prove that Jesus is a deity, but not that He's YHWH, since I believe Jesus and YHWH to be separate personas.
So which is it, do you want me to prove Jesus' deity/godhood, or that Jesus is YHWH?


I am asking that you prove this to me Scripturally. Now, when I speak of "Deity," I am referring to Yahweh, the godhood that Christ Himself possesses. And, I am not asking anything of Oneness theology, because if that were so, I would not be asking you to prove to me that Christ is God Incarnate, since Oneness theologians agree that Christ is God of the Old Testament. So, can you do this?

I think I get what you are asking, but still, you confused me because I was always under the impression that YHWH is the God of The Old Testament, Yahweh being basically synonomus with Yahovah, as in, they're both names of the God of Abraham.
But I understand now that you aren't asking me to prove that Jesus is the God of the O.T.

Anyways, I'll start off slow.
You said Scripture, so I'm going to assume that you're open to the gospel of John.
Let's try, John 1:1-18
Logos en theos.
Doesn't that say enough?

Adored Admirer

SoundDoctrine
I think I get what you are asking, but still, you confused me because I was always under the impression that YHWH is the God of The Old Testament, Yahweh being basically synonomus with Yahovah, as in, they're both names of the God of Abraham.
But I understand now that you aren't asking me to prove that Jesus is the God of the O.T.


When I ask for proof that Christ is God in the flesh, I simply ask that you prove that He is God, not a "god," or a man who has god-like attributes. So, here we go.

SoundDoctrine
Anyways, I'll start off slow.
You said Scripture, so I'm going to assume that you're open to the gospel of John.
Let's try, John 1:1-18
Logos en theos.
Doesn't that say enough?


I am pleased with your wisdom, that you would choose so willingly to start things off slowly, because many a people like to present various verses all at once, and thus, become unintelligeble in their argument. Now, you present to me what I cherish most in my heart. But, if to present to me this passage and so think that I should readily say that Christ is God, if it were that simple, I would concede immediately. But surely, this is not the case right now. When Christians read "the Word," they assume that the Word is the Son in this verse. Yet, to read it as such would lead us to Modalism, a heresy, since we would read at the end, "and the Son was the Father." Thus, it should be left simply as "Word," not "Son." Even more so, they tend to take upon themselves a Hellenized Jewish philosophy from Philo Judaeus, who was from Alexandria, Egypt. But, what if we think of the Hebrew word for logos here, being dabar? Dabar is the creative word of God, and it is demonstrated clearly in in Psalm 33:6, which says, "By the word [Heb. dabar; Gr. logos] of Yahweh were the heavens made, their starry host by the breath of his mouth."

What if it made known that Christ is God's spoken word in action, thus, being His representative on earth? Would this then take away the idea of "the Word" being a personal mask who was with God from the beginning? God's logos was used by angels and prophets, and these were the vessels of which God used. For example, "The dabar of Yahweh came to..." And the author of Hebrews, which is saturated with Christ, says, "In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe" (Heb. 1:1, 2). Now, Christ is the complete manifestation, that is, revelation of God, for in Him dwelleth the fulness of all the Godhead bodily (Col. 2:9). I must ask, in the beginning of John's prologue, is he not using what might be considered a "personification"?

What shall you have to say on this, concerning the first verse?
Before I jump in: are we assuming the existance of YHWH, and are we taking the entire Bible literally, excluding typically non-canon texts? Are we assuming divine inspiration and the authenticity of the current texts we posess?

Adored Admirer

Masterofpsi
Before I jump in: are we assuming the existance of YHWH,


Yes.

Masterofpsi
and are we taking the entire Bible literally, excluding typically non-canon texts? Are we assuming divine inspiration and the authenticity of the current texts we posess?


Yes. But, it is questionable as to what you mean by "literal." When you say literal, do you thereby refer to all things being read in literal reading, even if something was allegorical? Or, do you assume that all things should be read according to their own sense, and by that, I mean, to their literary structure? I am positive that you're referring to the latter.

Sparkly Explorer

John Calvin
SoundDoctrine
I think I get what you are asking, but still, you confused me because I was always under the impression that YHWH is the God of The Old Testament, Yahweh being basically synonomus with Yahovah, as in, they're both names of the God of Abraham.
But I understand now that you aren't asking me to prove that Jesus is the God of the O.T.


When I ask for proof that Christ is God in the flesh, I simply ask that you prove that He is God, not a "god," or a man who has god-like attributes. So, here we go.

SoundDoctrine
Anyways, I'll start off slow.
You said Scripture, so I'm going to assume that you're open to the gospel of John.
Let's try, John 1:1-18
Logos en theos.
Doesn't that say enough?


I am pleased with your wisdom, that you would choose so willingly to start things off slowly, because many a people like to present various verses all at once, and thus, become unintelligeble in their argument. Now, you present to me what I cherish most in my heart. But, if to present to me this passage and so think that I should readily say that Christ is God, if it were that simple, I would concede immediately. But surely, this is not the case right now. When Christians read "the Word," they assume that the Word is the Son in this verse. Yet, to read it as such would lead us to Modalism, a heresy, since we would read at the end, "and the Son was the Father." Thus, it should be left simply as "Word," not "Son." Even more so, they tend to take upon themselves a Hellenized Jewish philosophy from Philo Judaeus, who was from Alexandria, Egypt. But, what if we think of the Hebrew word for logos here, being dabar? Dabar is the creative word of God, and it is demonstrated clearly in in Psalm 33:6, which says, "By the word [Heb. dabar; Gr. logos] of Yahweh were the heavens made, their starry host by the breath of his mouth."

What if it made known that Christ is God's spoken word in action, thus, being His representative on earth? Would this then take away the idea of "the Word" being a personal mask who was with God from the beginning? God's logos was used by angels and prophets, and these were the vessels of which God used. For example, "The dabar of Yahweh came to..." And the author of Hebrews, which is saturated with Christ, says, "In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe" (Heb. 1:1, 2). Now, Christ is the complete manifestation, that is, revelation of God, for in Him dwelleth the fulness of all the Godhead bodily (Col. 2:9). I must ask, in the beginning of John's prologue, is he not using what might be considered a "personification"?

What shall you have to say on this, concerning the first verse?

I think that the context of the first verse is very important.
One can simply take any verse out of the Bible and have it mean anything, but to truely understand the Bible, real exegesis is needed.
You are right in saying that to just use this verse would lead to Modalism.
I do not think that by saying,"logos en theos" John meant for it to be a personification.
A key verse to understanding the context of John 1:1 would be John 1:14.
Logos ginomai sarx kai skenoo en hemin kai theaomai autos doxa doxa hos monogenes para pater pleres charis kai alethia.
Pater, the Father.
Whom is the Father?
If we look back in John 1:1, with the word, theos, one would understand Pater, while also understanding the phrase doxa hos monogenes para, glory as of the only begotten, to be theos. God the Father.
How then, if we were to understand Logos to only be a personification and not God himself, would Logos be made flesh and have the glory of God the Father?

(I shall continue this tomorrow, but I need to go to bed now. Goodnight!)

Adored Admirer

SoundDoctrine
John Calvin
SoundDoctrine
I think I get what you are asking, but still, you confused me because I was always under the impression that YHWH is the God of The Old Testament, Yahweh being basically synonomus with Yahovah, as in, they're both names of the God of Abraham.
But I understand now that you aren't asking me to prove that Jesus is the God of the O.T.


When I ask for proof that Christ is God in the flesh, I simply ask that you prove that He is God, not a "god," or a man who has god-like attributes. So, here we go.

SoundDoctrine
Anyways, I'll start off slow.
You said Scripture, so I'm going to assume that you're open to the gospel of John.
Let's try, John 1:1-18
Logos en theos.
Doesn't that say enough?


I am pleased with your wisdom, that you would choose so willingly to start things off slowly, because many a people like to present various verses all at once, and thus, become unintelligeble in their argument. Now, you present to me what I cherish most in my heart. But, if to present to me this passage and so think that I should readily say that Christ is God, if it were that simple, I would concede immediately. But surely, this is not the case right now. When Christians read "the Word," they assume that the Word is the Son in this verse. Yet, to read it as such would lead us to Modalism, a heresy, since we would read at the end, "and the Son was the Father." Thus, it should be left simply as "Word," not "Son." Even more so, they tend to take upon themselves a Hellenized Jewish philosophy from Philo Judaeus, who was from Alexandria, Egypt. But, what if we think of the Hebrew word for logos here, being dabar? Dabar is the creative word of God, and it is demonstrated clearly in in Psalm 33:6, which says, "By the word [Heb. dabar; Gr. logos] of Yahweh were the heavens made, their starry host by the breath of his mouth."

What if it made known that Christ is God's spoken word in action, thus, being His representative on earth? Would this then take away the idea of "the Word" being a personal mask who was with God from the beginning? God's logos was used by angels and prophets, and these were the vessels of which God used. For example, "The dabar of Yahweh came to..." And the author of Hebrews, which is saturated with Christ, says, "In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe" (Heb. 1:1, 2). Now, Christ is the complete manifestation, that is, revelation of God, for in Him dwelleth the fulness of all the Godhead bodily (Col. 2:9). I must ask, in the beginning of John's prologue, is he not using what might be considered a "personification"?

What shall you have to say on this, concerning the first verse?

I think that the context of the first verse is very important.
One can simply take any verse out of the Bible and have it mean anything, but to truely understand the Bible, real exegesis is needed.
You are right in saying that to just use this verse would lead to Modalism.
I do not think that by saying,"logos en theos" John meant for it to be a personification.
A key verse to understanding the context of John 1:1 would be John 1:14.
Logos ginomai sarx kai skenoo en hemin kai theaomai autos doxa doxa hos monogenes para pater pleres charis kai alethia.
Pater, the Father.
Whom is the Father?
If we look back in John 1:1, with the word, theos, one would understand Pater, while also understanding the phrase doxa hos monogenes para, glory as of the only begotten, to be theos. God the Father.
How then, if we were to understand Logos to only be a personification and not God himself, would Logos be made flesh and have the glory of God the Father?

(I shall continue this tomorrow, but I need to go to bed now. Goodnight!)


I'll return to this tomorrow as well, because I will be getting off shortly. As you know, to write copiously is something I enjoy doing. Brevity never had its charm for me.
Isn't the 'proof' of Jesus being God a kind of backwards working exercise?

Since we 'sin' against God, then in order to have peace with Him, He has to forgive us. Which is why Jesus got into trouble when he told the paralyzed man that his sins were forgiven. (grumble, grumble, went the teachers of the law, only God can forgive sins).

If Jesus wasn't God, then Jesus had no right to forgive our sins against God. By doing so, he would have been a sinner himself and a bad teacher and so deserved to get done in. Which means he couldn't have been a perfect sacrifice, which is what scripture says he was.

There is an interesting grammatical 'error' when scripture talks about the name of God being Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Normally in Greek it would have been written 'names' of God - if they were three different people. But it is singular - name - and then three persons follow (ie. Father, Son, Holy Spirit). It is out of 'deliberate mistakes' like this that the doctrine of trinity developed. Along with 'I and the Father are one".

Fair enough if you don't want to believe that Jesus IS God because it messes with your own interpretation/understanding. It's quite a mystery how it is possible and it is worth pondering rather than just accepting as a given. However, since the church has argued it out on numerous occasions, there is no point reinventing the wheel - check out the classics of early church history and see why the teaching prevails that Jesus is God.

BTW, do you think that the Holy Spirit is or is not God?
The real John Calvin wrote:

[The writer of the gospel of John] adds “This Word was God” to express still better what he wished to indicate, that Jesus Christ is not a created thing Who had a beginning, but He is our true God. This passage has been poorly understood by some. Someone has foolishly translated it, saying, “God is the Word.” For if we said that God was the Word, the Father would no longer be God and the Holy Spirit would no longer be God. But St. John wished on the contrary to say that the Word is God, as if he said that Jesus Christ is, with respect to His Deity, of one same essence with the Father. Thus he does not exclude the Father from the Deity, but he shows that there is only one essence in God. Although there was a distinction of God from His Word, yet we must always come back to this simple proposition, that They are one God Whom we must adore. To be sure, ancient heretics have worked hard to pervert this passage so as not to be constrained to confess that Jesus Christ was our true God. But we see here that St. John speaks so dearly of the eternity of this Word that there is no place for shuffling or subterfuge.

Do you agree or disagree with your namesake?
Tempting, but frankly ontological argumenst over the deity of Christ that drag forth the positions of the ancient fathers and the council proceedings really aren't my high watermark of things to do right now. I'm more concerned with ethics and application of theological foundations than I am with ontological arguments like this. So, if you'll forgive me, Calvin I will probably pass on what appears to be an amusing open invitation. I may lurk and observe the two of you hash out with the greek. That could be fun.
We can't; go away. We are just as able to prove that as you are to disprove it.
[quote="Unemphatic"]We can't; go away. We are just as able to prove that as you are to disprove it.[/quote] Yes, but that is what makes the argument all in good fun. I say, go for it!
"Any scripture," eh? wink

Doctrine & Covenants 19:15-19
Therefore I command you to repent - repent, lest I smite you by the rod of my mouth, and by my wrath, and by my anger, and your sufferings be sore - how sore you know not, how exquisite you know not, yea, how hard to bear you know not.
For behold, I, God, have suffered these things for all, that they might not suffer if they would repent;
But if they would not repent they must suffer even as I;
Which suffering caused myself, even God, the greatest of all, to tremble because of pain, and to bleed at every pore, and to suffer both body and spirit - and would that I might not drink the bitter cup, and shrink -
Nevertheless, glory be to the Father, and I partook and finished my preparations unto the children of men.


From a more Biblical standpoint, though, I would have to pursue the train of thought of Christ as the great I AM.

John 8:56-59
Your father Abraham rejoiced to csee my day: and he saw it, and was glad.
Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?
Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.
Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.


The Pharisees' willingness to stone him for heresy seems to me, at least, to verify that Christ avers that he is Yahweh, the great I AM. Furthermore, my version of the Bible has this footnote under "Before Abraham was, I am":

"The term I AM used here in the Greek is identical with the Septuagint usage in Ex. 3: 14 which identifies Jehovah. (Cp. also John 4: 26.)"

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